Electrical – Trouble understanding this voltage divider for a non-inverting Op Amp

circuit analysisoperational-amplifier

I'm going through the Op Amp section in The Art of Electronics and I'm having trouble understanding their derivation of the gain for the following circuit:

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So by the properties of Op Amps \$ v_A=v_{in} \$, now the way I understand this circuit is that since the potential at A is \$ v_{in}\$ and \$ R_1 \$ is connected to the ground there will be a current flowing through \$ R_1 \$ towards the ground. Since another property of Op Amps is that the current going into them is essentially 0 we know that this current must also pass through \$ R_2 \$ so we can find \$ v_{out}\$ and hence the gain by using \$ v_{out}=v_{in}+iR_2\$ where \$i=\frac{v_{in}}{R_1}\$.

However in the textbook, it is explained as "But \$v_a\$ comes from a voltage divider: \$v_a=\frac{v_{out}R_1}{R_1+R_2}\$", I'm just having trouble seeing why this is valid, this comes from current being \$i=\frac{v_{out}}{R_1+R_2}\$ and then going from the ground to point A through \$R_1\$, I suppose I am confused by the fact that this finds a different current through the resistors than my method and it still works.

Best Answer

Both solutions are equivalent. They just look different because one current is in terms of vin and the other in terms of vout.

If you substitute (from the gain) \$V_{in} = V_{out}\frac{R1}{R1+R2}\$ you get the equation in the book.