Electrical – How was the transformer reduced in this Thevenin equivalent circuit

circuit analysis

Below is an example of a one-port network and how to find its output impedance by using Thevenin model:

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I can understand that Vi is set to zero since it is an independent source. But how was the coupled coils or transformer with 1:a ratio is reduced to the third circuit diagram? I mean how was a^2*R1 and a^2*L1 was obtained? Only the ratio 1:a is given not the inductance.

Best Answer

The transformer is presumed to be ideal with a magnetization inductance of L1 hence, when Vi is set to zero, the impedance on that side of the ideal transformer is R1||sL1.

That impedance is transformed by the turns ratio squared (\$a^2\$) to the secondary output side hence it becomes: -

$$a^2(R_1 || sL_1)$$

Given that it is in series with R2 it should now be clear.

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