Electronic – Ideal Op Amp and its Input Voltage

circuit analysisemfoperational-amplifiervoltage

In an ideal operational amplifier, I understand that the inputs draw no current (due to infinite impedance). So, in the example below, the value of Vp would equal the value of the EMF (because there is no voltage drop across the resistance), which is 1V.

Unless I'm mistaken, the definition of voltage at a particular point is the amount of electric-potential energy per coulomb of charge. I'm wondering how exactly the electric-potential energy from the EMF gets "transferred" (for lack of a better of term) across the resistor and to another section of the wire if there is no movement of electrons?

Also, since there is no current, then what's the purpose of the 8.9kΩ resistor if there is no voltage drop?

op-amp-example

Image Source: http://raise.spd.louisville.edu/EE220/L13.html

Best Answer

I'm wondering how exactly the electric-potential energy from the EMF gets "transferred" across the resistor and to another section of the wire if there is no movement of electrons?

Imagine if there was a potential difference between the two sides of the resistor.

Then a current would flow through the resistor, until the voltages equalized on the two sides of the resistor.

If it helps, also remember there is a small parasitic capacitance from the node labelled \$v_p\$ to any other nearby conductive objects (which we usually model as just being connected to the ground node). So when you first connect the 1 V battery, current does flow through the resistor, but only until those parasitic capacitors are charged up to the point that the potential is equal and current stops flowing through the resistor.

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