Say you own a abcd.com
and you only want to use it to send and receive email via bob@abcd.com
. You don't want to provide any kind of website.
Can you set up the DNS records to include an "MX" record and no "A" record?
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Is this enough for sending and receiving email to work?
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Is this valid in terms of whatever standard defines these things?
Edit: To clarify, the mail server (terminology?) would not be hosted on abcd.com or *.abcd.com
Best Answer
As long as the system pointed at by the MX record has an A record itself, then yes.
For example:
example.com
can have a MX record pointing atmail.otherdomain.com
. As long as the name mail.otherdomain.com itself is resolvable to an IP address, this is a valid configuration forexample.com
.Strictly speaking,
mail.otherdomain.com
should be an A record with the IP address in order to be RFC-compliant. But this A record will be in theotherdomain.com
domain, not inexample.com
.Addressing your example, in order for
bob@example.com
to be a valid email address,mail.otherdomain.com
needs to be configured to handle inbound mail forbob@example.com
.